M1TI Osteopathic Manipulative Medicine (OMM) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• How is counterstrain treatment performed?
• Which region is another term for the top opening of the thoracic cavity?
• Which statement describes Type 2 mechanics most accurately?
• Is referred pain treatable with the counterstrain technique?
• During counterstrain treatment, the patient is completely non-participatory in movement.
• Which barrier is associated with disease or a pathological process?
• Normal side bending for T9-T12 is within which range?
• Deltoid is what shape?
• Which option best describes the stretch-shortening cycle?
• Isolytic is the same thing as what?
• Which is the first step in diagnosing somatic dysfunction?
• Tensegrity is a structural principle described as?
• Which contraction involves no change in muscle length and is used to generate force without movement?
• Why are facilitated somatic dysfunctions considered 'must treat' dysfunctions?
• Coronal plane divides body into anterior and posterior.
• How many aspects of TART must the patient exhibit to be diagnosed with somatic dysfunction?
• Which of the following best describes the mechanism of respiratory assistance MET?
• Acute compartment syndrome most commonly occurs how?
• Which of these is a plausible target in OMM to facilitate lymphatic return from the upper extremity?
• In Layer by Layer Palpation of fascia, what five layers are you working with in order?
• Which receptor type is attributed to deep fascia?
• Which reflex type is triggered by localized somatic stimulation producing reflex responses in visceral structures?
• Which vertebral levels have spinous processes in the plane of the transverse processes of the caudal vertebra (caudal TP)?
• Which statement correctly matches the description of slow-twitch muscle fibers?
• What is an important consideration in the fluidic model of osteopathic care?
• What is the oculocephalogyric reflex?
• HVLA is indicated for which type of somatic dysfunction?
• What best defines diaphragmatic restriction?
• Which statement best describes HVLA in the context of osteoarthritis?
• Arm pain with myocardial infarction is an example of which reflex type?
• In tensegrity, what combination of forces provides stability and efficiency?
• Which anatomical region is most closely associated with initiating lymphatic return from the upper limb?
• Ropiness may indicate which type of injury?
• Which joint type is a synovial joint that allows movement in all directions except rotation, commonly exemplified by the fingers?
• How is isoinertial contraction defined in the source material?
• Stress is defined as force divided by what?
• In counterstrain, what is the initial tender point rating before treatment?
• Physiologic Barrier is determined by
• Relaxation in PIR also occurs due to which of the following?
• Diaphragmatic restriction involves restriction of what anatomical feature?
• Which sequence defines the stretch-shortening cycle?
• Muscular viscosity describes a force proportional to what property of the muscle?
• In reciprocal inhibition, with contraction of the agonist, what happens to the antagonist?
• Indirect barrier is the same as which of the following terms in OMM?
• What is the general treatment for counterstrain?
• The facet joints of the cervical spine are oriented to primarily permit which type of motion?
• Which term is synonymous with thoracic inlet?
• OA motion is considered Type 1-like.
• What is the primary outcome of joint mobilization?
• Which statement about neurophysiology and counterstrain is true?
• Which of the following is not part of the TART signs used to assess somatic dysfunction?
• During counterstrain treatment, the physician uses a specific pain intensity as a reference for guiding the procedure. Which intensity is used?
• Which joint type is typically biaxial, allowing movement in two planes, such as the wrist?
• Muscle Energy Technique (MET) is direct/indirect treatment?
• Which statement describes the Unit concept in Osteopathic Medicine?
• Excessive stress results in which outcome?
• What concept describes the body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement?
• Which statement about fusiform muscles is true?
• How does the Proprioceptive Theory relate to the development of tender points?
• Which autonomic system is described as 'fight or flight'?
• Which statement best defines tensile strain?
• What is listed as the final step in diagnosing somatic dysfunction?
• Contraction refers to:
• Which statement best describes the thoracic inlet in the context of lymphatic drainage?
• Direct Barrier is the same as which term?
• HVLA is indicated for restricted joint motion. Which statement is true?
• Efferent neurons are responsible for which function?
• Post-operative ambulation is a clinical treatment example for which type of restriction?
• Prescribing SSRIs to a patient with depression exemplifies clinical treatment for which osteopathic care model?
• What is fascia?
• Muscle spindles contain which types of fibers?
• Extrafusal muscle fibers are innervated by which neurons?
• Which contraction is defined as the contracting muscle's force remains constant while the proximal and distal attachments approximate?
• What is the function of the posterior segment of the spinal cord?
• Which statement describes eccentric contraction according to the source material?
• Which fiber type is fast-twitch, red, and has intermediate to high fatigue resistance?
• In Layer by Layer Palpation, which layer comes immediately after Skin?
• The behavioral model primarily aims to:
• Which sequence best describes the PIR procedure?
• Which statement defines compression strain?
• Which of the following is not a sign of somatic dysfunction as defined by TART?
• Which barrier describes a restriction due to a structural block?
• Which osteopathic care model primarily targets improvement of the biopsychosocial components of health?
• Fold and hold counterstrain mechanism accomplishes what physiological effect?
• Which joint is commonly referred to as the thumb joint?
• Fascia attaches, stabilizes, encloses, and ...
• Center of Gravity is usually found around which vertebral level?
• What did A. T. Still do on July 22, 1874?
• Osteopathic Static Structural Exam: What are you looking for?
• Which classes are included under Types of Levers?
• In a patient with acute somatic dysfunction in the thoracic spine, what is the expected description of ROM in that region?
• Isolytic contraction is described as what?
• Which joint allows rotation around a single axis?
• What percent of maximal contraction is used in PIR step 2?
• The posterior segment of the spine is composed of which structures?
• Anatomic barrier best describes which statement?
• In a second-class lever, the load is located between which two elements?
• Kinematics is the study of what?
• Normal degree of lumbar side bending is within which range?
• What is a palpable area of tenderness and tissue changes that can affect vascular elements called?
• Visceral fascia primarily functions to do what?
• Post-Isometric Relaxation (PIR) uses what principle?
• For how long should the tender point be held after reduction in counterstrain?
• Which term describes the same anatomical region as the 'superior thoracic aperture'?
• Most musculoskeletal joints behave as which type of lever?
• In pennate muscles, how do fibers attach to the tendon?
• Fascia attaches , stabilizes, ... , and separates
• For T10-T12, how do the spinous processes relate to their transverse processes across levels?
• Which statement best describes the trend in the last three thoracic vertebrae regarding spinous process position?
• Which population is particularly emphasized in the respiratory/circulatory model?
• Tensegrity consists of which elements?
• Which joint type has a saddle-shaped articular surface?
• What produces forces in joints?
• What is the normal degrees of flexion/extension in the cervical spine?
• What best characterizes deep fascia?
• Counterstrain treatment must achieve at least what percentage of relief to be considered effective?
• Edema related to tissue damage affects local tissues by doing what mechanism?
• During PIR, the patient contracts toward which direction?
• What is the function of the anterior segment of the spine?
• Slightly movable joints are called
• What is the joint mobilization technique used for?
• Which statement best defines force?
• How many times is PIR performed?
• For fusiform (parallel) muscles, what is the tendon arrangement?
• Which statement correctly describes intrafusal muscle fibers?
• What is a synostosis?
• Which is a primary motion of articulation?
• Counterstrain points are often found in which locations of a muscle?
• Which type of somatic dysfunction is characterized by facet locking due to short restrictors?
• Which type of somatic dysfunction involves a single vertebral unit?
• According to the Rule of 3s, the spinous process tips of T4-T6 project into which plane relative to their transverse processes?
• What is the goal of Respiratory assistance MET?
• The Autonomic model aims to balance SNS and PNS to achieve what?
• What is the role of Golgi tendon organs in PIR when tension increases?
• According to the Proprioceptive Theory, rapid stretching of a muscle leads to contraction of which muscle and rapid lengthening of which antagonist?
• Flexion/Extension occur in which plane?
• Damage to the annulus fibrosus can cause which condition?
• Neurophysiology in this context includes which components?
• A 25-year-old male presents with low back pain. Exam reveals T12-L5 is SB-L/R-R. Which muscle is most likely causing this pattern?
• Passive motion is motion performed by whom?
• Respiratory assistance MET is performed around how many times?
• What motion is primarily associated with the atlas on the axis (C1-C2) joint?
• Which statement correctly describes the Restrictive Barrier?
• A contracted muscle is defined as:
• Which contraction is defined as the contraction where the muscle contractile force remains constant while the attachments approximate?
• What defines reciprocal inhibition?
• Active Motion is produced by which?
• Which of the following is part of the joint structure?
• What is the main purpose of the stretch-shortening cycle?
• In osteopathic manipulative medicine, which anatomical region is most effective to treat to improve lymphatic drainage from the upper body?
• Counterstrain points are found on which part of the finger?
• What does the sustained abnormal metabolism theory propose?
• Which statement best describes which structure limits thoracic flexion?
• What is the normal range of side bending for the cervical spine?
• What does the term 'Rectus' mean?
• How many times is PIR typically repeated?
• Isoinertial contraction is described as a variant of which contraction type?
• Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to HVLA?
• Which anatomical region is the primary focus when attempting to enhance lymphatic drainage into the venous system from the upper body?
• Biomchanics is defined as which of the following?
• Facet locking involving short restrictors is a characteristic of which type of somatic dysfunction?
• Superficial Fascia
• The force of contraction is related to which factor?
• Type 2 mechanics describes what when a single vertebra rotates in flexed or extended position?
• Which lever class has the load located between the fulcrum and the applied force?
• What best describes Direct Technique in OMM?
• What are the five osteopathic models?
• Elastic Barrier: Range between the physiologic (det by pt) and the anatomic (limit of passive motion).
• Which statement correctly describes the directions of movement for PIR and reciprocal inhibition?
• Which vertebral level’s spinous process is described as halfway between its own TP and the TP of the vertebra caudal to it?
• In counterstrain, which statement best describes the tissue release achieved during treatment?
• In reciprocal inhibition, which statement is true?
• Define HVLA (PCOM version).
• In the osteopathic structural model, what is the primary goal?
• Post Isometric Relaxation (PIR) is used for which kind of condition?
• In OA motion, rotation and side bending occur in which relation?
• Reciprocal inhibition is used for what kind of injury?
• Which are forms of muscle contractions?
• Kinematics is best described as the study of motion without regard to its cause; which option reflects this?
• HVLA is also known as which treatment method?
• Which region should be targeted to optimize overall lymphatic drainage during OMM?
• Body is a Unit consisting of Mind, Body, Spirit.
• Which feature is NOT part of the posterior spinal segment?
• During PIR, moving away from the restrictive barrier toward ease results in what?
• Muscle Energy Technique (MET) is considered direct because you move toward the barrier. True or false?
• Which joint is multiaxial, allowing movement in multiple planes, such as the shoulder?
• HVLA safety in vertebral artery sclerosis is:
• Hooke's Law states that what is proportional to what?
• The superior thoracic aperture is commonly referred to as which anatomical region?
• The pivot (trochoid) joint primarily allows rotation between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2). Which example illustrates this?
• Which term describes the study of motion including rotation and translation?
• What happens after the isometric contraction in PIR?
• Sagittal plane divides body into right and left.
• Which description characterizes white muscle fibers?
• Which term represents a barrier type characterized by tissue elasticity?
• Which example illustrates fascial creep?
• Mechanotransduction describes bone's response to mechanical forces via what process?
• Which barrier describes the normal end range of motion?
• Which layer lines the inner surface of the joint capsule and secretes synovial fluid?
• Which barrier is defined as the limit of motion imposed by the anatomic structures?
• What are the two types of isotonic contractions?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between cervical rotation ROM and cervical lateral bending ROM?
• Which term specifically describes the change in length due to tensile stress?
• Which of the following is NOT a skeletal muscle fiber type listed?
• Which type of somatic dysfunction involves multiple segments?
• The metabolic model primarily aims to:
• Somatic Dysfunction is characterized by which of the following components (TART)?
• Joint mobilization requires how much force of contraction?
• Fascial creep is defined as what?
• Which statement is NOT listed as a fascia function?
• During counterstrain, spindle fiber tension tends to:
• Which best describes a parallel muscle's characteristic?
• The serratus muscle is described as having which edge pattern?
• Normal degree of rotation for T9-T12 is within which range?
• Which statement best describes HVLA?
• Which statement correctly describes a first-class lever?
• Viscero-visceral reflex involves what?
• Which statement best describes fascia's role in structural integrity?
• Which statement corresponds to eccentric contraction (as described in the source)?
• Normal degree of lumbar flexion is within which range?
• Which pairing matches architecture with example?
• Tensegrity is altered by strains and asymmetry addressed in which osteopathic care model?
• Kinematics is best described as which of the following?
• Kinesiology is the study of what?
• In somatic dysfunction assessment, what does TART stand for?
• Fascia (...) , stabilizes, encloses, and separates
• During the PIR contraction, the patient should inhale, exhale, hold breath, or breathe normally?
• Which spinal segment primarily guides and limits intervertebral motion and protects the spinal cord?
• Which structure responds to the forces of active contraction in a muscle-tendon unit?
• Which statement matches intermediate muscle fibers?
• Klippel-Feil syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by fusion of two or more cervical vertebrae from birth. Which option best states this fact?
• Isokinetic contraction is defined as what?
• Which option lists the five osteopathic models correctly?
• C1 is also known as which vertebra?
• Intrafusal fibers register changes in which aspect of muscle activity?
• Contracture, osteophyte, and capsulitis are examples of which barrier?
• Fascia mainly consists of which protein?
• Viscero-somatic reflex involves what?
• What are the two functional segments of the spine?
• The counterstrain technique steps include which sequence?
• Osteopathic Manipulative Treatment (OMT) Beneficial for which aspect(s) of the Unit?
• Which reflex involves visceral stimuli producing reflex responses in segmentally related somatic structures?
• After relaxation, what is the next step in PIR?
• Intrafusal fibers are innervated by which type of neurons?
• Which structure mainly limits thoracic flexion?
• During HVLA, placing the impulse directly at the restrictive bony landmark corresponds to which lever type?
• Which theory states that tissue injury causes inflammation leading to tenderness, and the counterstrain posture improves circulation and reduces inflammatory mediators?
• Which term best matches a muscle with fibrotic changes that cannot be passively stretched?
• In osteopathic technique, the barrier that is overcome by the clinician to reach the anatomic limit is called which?
• Somato-visceral reflex involves what?
• Which statement best describes isotonic contractions?
• Which term refers to joints that are freely movable and constitute the majority of articulations in the limbs?
• Isotonic contraction is described as having tension which property?
• Which option best lists the two common etiologies for structural dysfunction?
• What is the relationship between a pennate muscle and its tendon(s)?
• Type 1 mechanics describes what in neutral position?
• What is the central idea of String Theory as presented in the material?
• Which anatomical area would be most appropriate to address first when aiming to improve lymph flow from the shoulder girdle?
• Which statement about counterstrain treatment is true?
• Which statement lists the primary motions of articulation?
• What is the goal of the structural model?
• Among the listed segments, which has the smallest normal range of side bending?
• Which receptor type is specifically associated with deep fascia?
• Which component primarily creates joint forces at attachment sites?
• Which barrier lies between the physiologic and anatomic barriers?
• In Osteopathic Static Structural Exam, what is assessed?
• Which mechanism primarily drives lymphatic and venous fluid movement?
• Which vertebral region is primarily associated with Type 1 mechanics?
• Engaging the restrictive barrier and moving through it is an example of what?
• Which joint type allows gliding movements and includes the wrist as an example?
• Afferent neurons are responsible for which function?
• What is the duration of the submaximal contraction in PIR step 2?
• Muscle contracture is best described as:
• Which statement describes slow-twitch muscle fibers most accurately?
• A patient presents with back pain and dermatologic signs such as folliculitis and scaly patches; the somatic dysfunction is most likely:
• Viscoelasticity is a property attributed to what level of fascia?
• Which of the following is NOT a somatic barrier type?
• Which list includes all six freely movable synovial joints?
• What determines motion in a healthy individual?
• In Type 1 mechanics, when a group of vertebrae side-bends in neutral, what is the resulting rotation direction relative to the side-bending?
• Tensile and compressive strain both are measures of
• For what kind of patient is Long lever HVLA indicated?
• Functional joint classifications by mobility include which of the following?
• How is somatic dysfunction diagnosed for counterstrain?
• What is the minimum duration for holding the counterstrain position?
• The anterior segment is comprised of what?
• Define Facilitation (Neurologic model).
• Counterstrain is what type of treatment?
• Denticulate ligaments are ligaments connecting which structures along the spinal cord?
• The oculocephalogyric reflex is exceptionally gentle and used when someone is in extreme pain or spasms usually in the neck.
• Is HVLA a direct or indirect technique?
• Which pair correctly identifies the two isotonic contractions?
• Which of the following is a TART component?
• Which term describes a contraction that has concentric and eccentric as its two types?
• What is the primary objective of the Autonomic (Neurologic) model of Osteopathic Care?
• Immovable joints are called
• What is the normal range of rotation for the cervical spine?
• In PIR, does the physician apply force toward the patient's ease or toward their bind?
• Pathologic Barrier is best described as?
• C1 is also known as the Atlas and is described as allowing which movement?
• What is the normal range of side bending for T1-T4?
• Who coined the term tensegrity?
• Which term denotes immovable joints?
• Counterstrain goal:
• What does post-isometric relaxation involve?
• In a third-class lever, the applied force is located where relative to the load and fulcrum?
• During counterstrain treatment, does the finger pad pressure on the tender point remain constant throughout the treatment?
• After completing counterstrain, what is the next clinical step?
• In MET, the feather's edge concept implies moving to which point?
• Muscles produce forces that can cause which type of motion?
• According to the impaired Ligamento-Muscular Reflex Theory, what happens in response to ligament injury?
• If a patient demonstrates a cervical spine side-bending of 50 degrees, is this within the normal range?
• The Rule of 3s applies to which region of the spine?
• In OMM, reciprocal inhibition uses gentle force on an agonist to reflexively relax the antagonist to lengthen shortened muscle.
• Muscle force is dependent on what molecular components?
• T11 spinous process is described as lying halfway between its own transverse process and the transverse process of which vertebra?
• What does the Rule of Threes describe in the thoracic region?
• Which statement best describes extrafusal muscle fibers?
• In PIR, what type of contraction is performed by the muscle before relaxation?
• Which statement best describes the rationale for the counterstrain point posture?
• During long lever HVLA, with the upper segment at the barrier, where is the lower segment positioned relative to the upper segment?
• Type 2 mechanics involve a single vertebral unit. Which statement is true?
• Gastrocolic reflex is an example of which reflex type?
• When performing MET, you are taking the patient to ...
• Cervical spinal motion mechanics are Type 2-like; C2-C7 rotate and sidebend to which direction?
• Cross over occurs at which location or condition?
• T1-T3 spinous processes have what relationship to their transverse processes according to the Rule of 3s?
• Which joints are classic hinge joints?
• Which statement best describes strain in biomechanics?
• Which theory describes a protective reflex that inhibits contraction increasing ligament strain while stimulating contraction that decreases ligament strain?
• In the context of manual therapy for lymphatic care, focus on which region would be most beneficial?
• According to the Rule of Threes, how are the thoracic vertebrae categorized?
• What does Wolff's Law state?
• The joint capsule consists of which layers?
• Type 2 mechanics typically involve which of the following?
• Which area is most relevant when addressing lymphatic drainage issues in the upper body?
• Type 1 mechanics typically involve which of the following?
• To obtain the greatest benefit for lymphatic drainage, where should a clinician direct somatic techniques?
• Where are the contractile regions of intrafusal fibers located?
• Alpha-Gamma co-activation serves to maintain spindle sensitivity during contraction. Which option best describes this process?
• What is the normal range of side bending for T5-T8?
• Alpha motor neurons innervate which muscle fibers?
• Strain is defined as a measure of what?
• According to the Rule of 3s, the spinous process tips of T7-T9 lie in the same plane as the transverse processes of which vertebra?
• How long is the patient counterforce held for in post isometric relaxation?
• Normal degree of lumbar extension is within which range?
• Does the sacrum exhibit kyphosis or lordosis?
• The respiratory/circulatory model of osteopathic care is especially important in which patient population?
• In isotonic contractions, what is described about tension?
• How does joint mobilization work?
• What causes tenderness at a site of tissue injury?
• Pennate muscle has which characteristic regarding excursion and force?
• Elbow and knee joints are examples of which joint category by mobility?
• In long lever HVLA, is there any force placed directly on the dysfunctional segment?
• Which option best lists the two common etiologies for structural dysfunction?
• In PIR, which neuromuscular mechanism is relied upon?
• Which pairing correctly describes barrier mapping: Indirect barrier to Ease and Direct barrier to Bind?
• Sidebending occurs in which plane?
• MET principle used?
• What does the term 'Teres' mean?
• Which is a goal of the Respiratory/Circulatory Model?
• What is the effect of sympathetic activation on the body?
• In cervical motion dysfunction, which motions can be involved?
• What best defines the Restrictive Barrier in osteopathic manipulative medicine?
• Viscoelasticity is a property of tissue that shows a changing stress-strain relationship over time; it indicates tissue exhibits both what?
• What term describes freely movable joints?
• During respiratory assistance, how is the patient's inhalation/exhalation contributing to MET?
• Tensegrity channels refer to forces at which scales?
• Freely movable joints are called
• Which of the following is NOT typically listed as part of the joint structure?
• The combined flexion/extension ROM of the cervical spine is typically which range?
• Which function is attributed to fascia according to the material?
• Type 1 mechanics occur in the thoracic and lumbar spine in the absence of somatic dysfunction. Which of the following statements is correct?
• Which vertebral levels have spinous processes that project directly posterior relative to their transverse processes?
• Does the patient rate the pain at a counterstrain point?
• Cervical mechanics involve which cervical segments?
• Which contraction is characterized by the muscle contracting but not shortening?
• Which anatomical term refers to the upper opening of the thoracic cavity that is a key target for improving lymphatic drainage?
• Which option is NOT a primary motion of articulation?
• What is the principle of synaptic fatigue?
• Which lever class has the fulcrum between the applied force and the load?
• Which property describes how tissue responds to stress with both time-dependent deformation and elastic recoil?
• Dupuytren's contracture is defined as?
• Which term refers to immovable joints?
• Rotation occurs in which plane?
• Di-Polar Fascia does what?
• In a patient with chronic somatic dysfunction in the thoracic spine, what is the expected description of motion in that region?
• Kinesiology and kinematics describe different aspects of movement; which statement is accurate?
• Which autonomic system is described as 'rest and digest'?
• If T3 favors rotation to the right and sidebending left, which direction does the spinous process (SP) orient toward?